Feedback: Is The Bible Incomplete?
Bodie Hodge,
M.Sc., B.Sc., PEI
Biblical
Authority Ministries, June 9, 2025 (Donate)
Letter,
unedited:
I’ve read all the articles on your web-site regarding the Apocryphal Gospels, but I need some more insight. The Catholics believe our Bible is incomplete. I understand that 1 Maccabee 9:27 says there were no prophets, but so does Psalm 74:9. If God’s Word expands further than my Bible I need to know.
B.B., U.S.
Response:
Thank you for
contacting the ministry. As you surely know, the Roman Catholics have the same
New Testament as Protestants. The issue is solely over the Old Testament books.
Even then, the list given by the Roman church is different than that given by
Orthodox churches, whose division with Rome occurred far earlier than later
Protestant reformers.
When 1
Maccabees 9:27 says “prophets ceased to exist among them” at that time, that
eliminates the book itself — as well as the second book, also by Maccabees — as
Scripture. One may too quickly assume the same thing must be the case with Psalm 74; however, the styles
of both are immensely different.
First and
Second Maccabees are written as literal history, discussing events between Malachi and
Christ, whereas Psalm 74 is a poetic piece written by Asaph. This psalm is also
not necessarily referring to the time at hand, but a time when Israel will be
cast off (verse 1) and a time when the Temple sanctuary will be destroyed
(verses 3–8).
So, it may
not be wise to interpret this Psalm as literal history of the day, but instead
keep it as it was intended: a verse discussing a future event and the
destruction of the Temple. (As a note, it was more likely the destruction of
the Second Temple, not Solomon’s, as prophets existed in the days of
Nebuchadnezzar when the first Temple was destroyed — e.g., Daniel, Ezekiel,
Jeremiah, and Obadiah).
Furthermore,
most of the items were carried away and returned later; whereas after the
Second Temple was destroyed, so were the items—either at its initial
destruction or carried off and destroyed.
When the Second
Temple was destroyed, the apostles and New Testament prophets spoke for
God; no longer were there any prophets “in the sense” of the Old Testament to
call that nation back to God—it was time for judgment for rejecting Christ.
Also, the
nation of Israel was “cast off,” fulfilling Psalm 74:1 with
the new covenant in Christ, that is, there is no longer any difference between
Jew and Gentile (Romans 10:12; Galatians 3:28). Of course, this leads to a much
deeper discussion about the biblical relationship between Israel and the
Church, which is beyond the scope of this response.
The
issue of the canon of the Old Testament ultimately comes down to Christ,
though. Jesus came from heaven to earth and did not challenge the canon of the
Jews, but affirmed it. The canon of the Jews is identical to the Protestant
canon and many, even the Roman church, agree with this canon, such as Jerome until
1546 with the Council of Trent, where apocryphal writings were elevated to
a full canon status by the Roman church.
Of course, Protestants and Jews never affirmed the Apocrypha — though they are seen as valuable for historical issues much like the church fathers, they are not at the level of the inspired canon of Scripture.[1]
I pray this helps and God bless. Bodie
Originally here: https://answersingenesis.org/bible-questions/is-the-bible-incomplete/; Edited; Republished by permission.
[1]
For more on the canon, please see “A Look at the Canon,” Bodie Hodge, Biblical
Authority Ministries, March 31, 2025, https://www.biblicalauthorityministries.org/2025/03/canon.html.
